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You're giving anecdotes with nobility in France and Britain in the period of english (major) development, but in the medieval times which languages the proles (
by restalis 10y ago
You're giving anecdotes with nobility in France and Britain in the period of english (major) development, but in the medieval times which languages the proles (that the noblemen had little or no contact with) spoke was of little concern to those in power. And there's more, actually! The difference in the spoken language was serving as a distinctive trait of nobility which in itself was something sought to be preserved not obliterated!