You are assuming the conclusion. My question is: the standard Ricardian argument for international free trade assumes that as trading partners become more prod

You are assuming the conclusion. My question is: the standard Ricardian argument for international free trade assumes that as trading partners become more productive, all trading partners benefit. Do you think this is the case? Certainly the original post does, as confirmed in his response. If that is so, why would other countries becoming better at making things make us poorer?