I do think that shareholders simply should have lost their shares when the FMs failed--that's what happens to any other business that's fails. Why would they be

I do think that shareholders simply should have lost their shares when the FMs failed--that's what happens to any other business that's fails. Why would they be exempt just because their failure was big enough to be catastrophic? And nothing has changed. Just because the government didn't explicitly take away their shares doesn't mean they are suddenly entitled to the profits that the public investment in their companies has reaped.