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You’re correct in regards to terminology; apparently what I was describing is more related to the terms “positive/negative predictive value.” Your definition of
by M_Mouse 10y ago
You’re correct in regards to terminology; apparently what I was describing is more related to the terms “positive/negative predictive value.” Your definition of false positive rate is the correct one. But I believe my argument is still valid.
If we test a group comprised of only former presidents, all positives must be true positives. So our false positive rate will be 0% while our female test set has been observed to have a false positive rate of 10%. This illustrates that the sample set effects the observed false positive rate.
As the rate of occurrence of what we are testing for approaches 100% in the sample set, the false positive rate drops to zero. Inversely, as the incidence of what we are testing for in a (sufficiently large) sample set decreases from 100%, the false positive rate will eventually increase to some non-zero percentage unless the test is perfect.
So if we only test meth addicts for meth, our false positive rate will be lower then if we test the population at large.
- jsprogrammer 10y agoI think that is true, but we can still distinguish between the false positive rate of the testing mechanism vs. the false positive rate of a particular series of tests (where this would depend, somewhat, in the underlying distribution). I'm not sure what the correct terminology is for this distinction, but I still don't believe Bayes' Theorem would come into play.