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Yes, it uses a sigmoid function because it's logistic regression and therefore you are using the inverse of the logistic function, the sigmoid, as the notebook
by krosaen 10y ago
Yes, it uses a sigmoid function because it's logistic regression and therefore you are using the inverse of the logistic function, the sigmoid, as the notebook explains. But I think it's worth running through that and exploring why it's useful to use a logistic function in the first place (maps linear combo to (-1, 1) range). It was useful to me anyways, perhaps obvious to others.
Thanks for pointing out the relation to the Bernoulli distribution.
- ryanmonroe 10y agoThe logistic function maps to (0,1). The hyperbolic tangent tanh(x)=2*logistic(2x)-1 maps to (-1,1).