5 ms·
I think it depends on the crime. My main issue is that it leaves open an opportunity to intimidate the victim into waiving the prosecution. Sometimes it is hel
by chris_wot 11y ago
I think it depends on the crime.
My main issue is that it leaves open an opportunity to intimidate the victim into waiving the prosecution. Sometimes it is helpful to look at extremes to highlight the point: if a young child was abused by a patent, then was influenced by the parent who didn't abuse them this would be unjust.
In a more everyday case, if a woman is beaten by her partner and it is witnessed, I feel that person should be prosecuted regardless of the feelings of the victim - domestic violence, in my view, is often perpetuated because a spouse or partner will not speak up - normally because they are psychologically dependent on their abuser.
These are obviously crimes of violence. If a crime is committed against a corporation, on the other hand then I think that they should be allowed to waive the prosecution.
- ikeboy 11y agoYou can require the victim to be of age. I don't have a good idea on how to deal with the second example, but perhaps you could issue restraining orders if a judge thinks it's warranted, regardless of waivers, and if that's violated the person goes to jail for the original crime, regardless of waivers? Then judges could still protect people.