3 ms·
"is" in language can often mean "is a subset of", I was using the term that way. Whilst you are right that "=>" disclaims any philosophical relationship, the pr
by infinity0 10y ago
"is" in language can often mean "is a subset of", I was using the term that way. Whilst you are right that "=>" disclaims any philosophical relationship, the proof covers all definitions of "cause" that one might reasonably come up with. So "you can't conclude A => B" implies (with probability 1) that "you can't conclude A causes B":
The proof only defines "causation" as some event "a" for which "P(c|a) = 1". This is the same property that "=>" has in propositional logic, and there is no implication of philosophical causation here either. But the proof still works, as a consequence of its definitions.
So in other words, the proof says: if causation causes correlation then P(a|c) > P(a) (i.e. correlation is evidence of causation) but we can't say causation is definitely true (P(a) = 1), however you want to define "causes" as long as it has the property that P(c|a) = 1.
- dragonwriter 10y agoThat's not entirely true, at least, using the normal definition of "causes" that is of interest in correlation vs. causation discussions, which certainly includes "causes" which are contributors to the occurrence of an effect but do not alone guarantee it (e.g., smoking causes cancer, but it is not true that smoking implies cancer in the propositional logic sense.)