I'm no expert on this subject but the proof in the first article seems a bit dodgy. Bayesian inference is a type of induction [1]. So using it to prove inductio

I'm no expert on this subject but the proof in the first article seems a bit dodgy. Bayesian inference is a type of induction [1]. So using it to prove induction merely begs the question? [1] http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/induction-problem/#BaySub http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/induction-problem/#BaySub