4 ms·

Extremely mind boggling work. I wonder what probability should one assign to the "p=np" statement.

• rwallace 10y ago
  Epsilon. We don't have a formal proof, but most people who have looked at the proposition consider it to be almost certainly false.
  • tmptmp 10y ago
    >>Epsilon. Was it not the case that people would have assigned very low probability to Fermat's last theorem too, at least before Wile's first version of proof? But then with Wile's first version, they would have assigned very large probability (1-epsilon, may be). I am confused as to what benefits do we derive from assigning such probabilities? I am certainly missing something big here.
    • rwallace 10y ago
      > Was it not the case that people would have assigned very low probability to Fermat's last theorem too Why do you think so? As I understand it, most mathematicians thought Fermat probably correct.