3 ms·

The law[0] in question specifically says that the federal government has to authorize the prosecution. [0] http://www.gesetze-im-internet.de/englisch_stgb/eng

• germanier 10y ago
  Just because the law allows to interfere with the prosecution does not make it morally right to interfere with the prosecution. (By the way, prosecutors are anyway bound to instruction in Germany (usually by the state governments). That doesn't mean the governments should actually use that power.)
  • duaneb 10y ago
    The law does not "allow interference", the law requires someone initiating the prosecution. Just because the law allows this does not make it morally right to initiate it.
    • germanier 10y ago
      An authorization to prosecute is not the same as an initiation. The law requires an initiation by the foreign head of state and an authorization of the German federal government. But that's semantics anyway. You should rather ask yourself, why should this law be treated any differently than all the others? It's written into it but that's the best reason one could find.
      • duaneb 10y ago
        Because it allows for personal judgment by the german federal government WITHOUT sidestepping the law.