I don't get that such a thing is even possible. Those workers were offered compensation, including future compensation, in trade for work now. Why does the sta

I don't get that such a thing is even possible. Those workers were offered compensation, including future compensation, in trade for work now. Why does the state get to annul the future compensation once the work is done ? Even weirder: why do libertarians here seem to be in favor of the state doing so ? You'd think breaking contracts would be a huge no-no for them.