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Sure. Myf = f(Myf) yyf = f(yyf) Suppose yxf = f(xxf) for all x. Now y is simply (lambda x f . f(xxf)) Note that this doesn't get you the applicative-o
by calcnerd256 17y ago
Sure.
Myf = f(Myf)
yyf = f(yyf)
Suppose yxf = f(xxf) for all x. Now y is simply
(lambda x f . f(xxf))
Note that this doesn't get you the applicative-order version we want, but it does satisfy the definition of Y
My = (lambda x . x x) (lambda x f . f (x x f))
= (lambda x f . f (x x f)) (lambda x f . f (x x f))
= (lambda f . f ((lambda a g . g (a a g)) (lambda a g . g (a a g)) f))
etc.