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Yes, absolutely - and another reason is that it forms a sort of "de facto precedent". Even though there isn't a USSC judgment, in future people will (hopefully)
by curryhowardiso 11y ago
Yes, absolutely - and another reason is that it forms a sort of "de facto precedent". Even though there isn't a USSC judgment, in future people will (hopefully) refer to "the time the DoJ tried to do X" and the theory is this is citation enough.
- fergbrain 11y agoThis was District Court, not SCOTUS.
- curryhowardiso 11y agoYes, which is why I said "despite not having a SC precedent"?