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That doesn't explain the relation to his previous purchases. I don't see the connection at all.

by GHFigs 17y ago

fragmede 17y ago
I have a 16-gigabyte SD card. In order to have a 32-gigabyte iPad, I have to purchase the 32-gigabyte version for $600. If the iPad had an SD card slot, I could hypothetically purchase a 16-gigabyte iPad for $500 and use my previously purchased 16-gigabyte SD card.
- GHFigs 17y ago
  You've restated exactly the part that I do understand. What I don't understand is where you see a connection between your previous purchases and what Apple charges for what they produce. You specifically said that Apple would charge you for what you already have, but it isn't clear where that occurs.
  - loup-vaillant 17y ago
    Literally, Apple don't charge him for what he already has. Just that assuming he wanted that 32GB IPad, it would be as if he were charged $100 for what it has. But literally, he would just have been charged $100 too much, compared to Apple adding this dammed SD port. This is akin to the different Windows editions. The basic edition is exactly the same as the pro edition, except for the restrictions, so they can justify the price difference.
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  - fragmede 17y ago
    Ah, I misunderstood your question then. The connection isn't to Apple's prices: they made it, they get to decide pricing (and features). The connection is between my previous purchase, and my next (considered) purchase and the connection there is me. Buying doesn't happen in a vacuum, though 'cost to me' is perhaps a better way of looking at it. The 'charge' occurs when Apple omits a card slot though it is their right to do so. This locks me into their pricing structure, which means I have to pay their prices. I already have 16-gigabytes that I could use in a device with an SD slot, but the lock-in requires that I pay their prices, and if I want the 32-gigabyte iPad, then I have to pay what Apple charges and I cannot use my previous purchase to offset that cost.

That doesn't explain the relation to his previous purchases. I don't see the connection at all.

by GHFigs 17y ago

That doesn't explain the relation to his previous purchases. I don't see the connection at all.

I have a 16-gigabyte SD card. In order to have a 32-gigabyte iPad, I have to purchase the 32-gigabyte version for $600. If the iPad had an SD card slot, I could hypothetically purchase a 16-gigabyte iPad for $500 and use my previously purchased 16-gigabyte SD card.

GHFigs 17y ago
You've restated exactly the part that I do understand. What I don't understand is where you see a connection between your previous purchases and what Apple charges for what they produce. You specifically said that Apple would charge you for what you already have, but it isn't clear where that occurs.
- loup-vaillant 17y ago
  Literally, Apple don't charge him for what he already has. Just that assuming he wanted that 32GB IPad, it would be as if he were charged $100 for what it has. But literally, he would just have been charged $100 too much, compared to Apple adding this dammed SD port. This is akin to the different Windows editions. The basic edition is exactly the same as the pro edition, except for the restrictions, so they can justify the price difference.
- deleted 17y ago
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- deleted 17y ago
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- fragmede 17y ago
  Ah, I misunderstood your question then. The connection isn't to Apple's prices: they made it, they get to decide pricing (and features). The connection is between my previous purchase, and my next (considered) purchase and the connection there is me. Buying doesn't happen in a vacuum, though 'cost to me' is perhaps a better way of looking at it. The 'charge' occurs when Apple omits a card slot though it is their right to do so. This locks me into their pricing structure, which means I have to pay their prices. I already have 16-gigabytes that I could use in a device with an SD slot, but the lock-in requires that I pay their prices, and if I want the 32-gigabyte iPad, then I have to pay what Apple charges and I cannot use my previous purchase to offset that cost.