But, aren't "obscene levels of inequality" only obscene related to a few decades post WW2, which many people seem to take as a normal, but which is really rathe

But, aren't "obscene levels of inequality" only obscene related to a few decades post WW2, which many people seem to take as a normal, but which is really rather unusual? The statement talks about "highest inequality ever", and I really don't see how any society can be much more unequal now than it was even 100 years ago -- not to mention any time before then...