3 ms·
No, it's doable at the level of Rudin's Principles: He shows that a function is Riemann integrable if and only if it is continuous everywhere except on a set o
by graycat 11y ago
No, it's doable at the level of
Rudin's Principles:
He shows that a function is
Riemann integrable if and only
if it is continuous everywhere
except on a set of measure 0.
For the definition of measure 0,
he gives that quickly, and don't
really need a course in measure
theory. Besides a course in
measure theory likes just to
f'get about Riemann integration,
and thankfully so.
- ska 11y agoAgree, it's do-able with baby Rudin. But as I recall it's a typical example used (early) in measure theory, not so much intro analysis. Hence "typical". Ymmv, of course.