The "veil of ignorance" is John Rawls's term, not John Locke's. Please don't go using the one for the other. From your comment, what I can see is that you're us

The "veil of ignorance" is John Rawls's term, not John Locke's. Please don't go using the one for the other. From your comment, what I can see is that you're using Rawls's philosophy far more than Locke's. It is not accurate to say that Locke supported this "veil of ignorance" idea. Locke was arguing about the nature of human beings. Rawls is doing something very different.