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As I said, fines aren't assessed as a proportion of the paying party's income. That's just not something taken into account in the vast majority of instances.
by harryh 11y ago
As I said, fines aren't assessed as a proportion of the paying party's income. That's just not something taken into account in the vast majority of instances.
I'm not making a value judgement on whether that's good or not. I'm just making a factual statement about the way the US justice system works.
- jsjohnst 11y agoI didn't imply anything about the paying party's income, I stated the impact of the crime. The fine should be proportional to the number affected and to what extreme, not the income of the culprit.