> 2. P-values do not measure the probability that the studied hypothesis is true, or the probability that the data were produced by random chance alone. Sure,

> 2. P-values do not measure the probability that the studied hypothesis is true, or the probability that the data were produced by random chance alone. Sure, but is there not a significant correlation between the two in practice? Or would you trust something that gives a 1% p-value equally as one that gives a 99% p-value? (Yes, I realize it's easy to construct counterexamples, hence why I asked "in practice".)