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Because fines are assessed based on the harm done not the ability of the person/organization to pay.
by harryh 11y ago
Because fines are assessed based on the harm done not the ability of the person/organization to pay.
- dredmorbius 11y agoCitation requested.
- jsjohnst 11y agoSo you're saying a cup of coffee is much more harmful proportionally than invading the privacy of millions? Let's say it was only 1 million, so not even $1.50 each. Cup of coffee for same one person, nearly 200x more.
- deleted 11y ago[deleted]
- harryh 11y agoAs I said, fines aren't assessed as a proportion of the paying party's income. That's just not something taken into account in the vast majority of instances. I'm not making a value judgement on whether that's good or not. I'm just making a factual statement about the way the US justice system works.
- jsjohnst 11y agoI didn't imply anything about the paying party's income, I stated the impact of the crime. The fine should be proportional to the number affected and to what extreme, not the income of the culprit.