3 ms·
If that were the case, then the publishing companies are violating copyright law as there is no copyright transfer agreement from the author or employer.
by dalke 11y ago
If that were the case, then the publishing companies are violating copyright law as there is no copyright transfer agreement from the author or employer.
- jrochkind1 11y agoI don't really know what you mean. But here's the wikipedia article: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copyright_status_of_work_by_the_U.S._government https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copyright_status_of_work_by_th... Which says: "This act only applies to U.S. domestic copyright as that is the extent of U.S. federal law. The U.S. government asserts that it can still hold the copyright to those works in other countries." With a couple cites. You can google more about it too. It is the U.S. government's position that they do hold copyright to such works in other countries, and I believe they have generally succesfully enforced their copyright in other country's courts. (I don't know if they have ever failed in other country's courts, on the grounds that U.S. law says the U.S. goverment can't hold copyright? I'm not sure what bearing such a U.S. law would have in another country's courts, which is the whole idea).