3 ms·
In the case of the baseball example, at least, isn't the increased accuracy of the Stein estimator a result of incorporating a good Bayesian prior into the "obs
by jonahx 11y ago
In the case of the baseball example, at least, isn't the increased accuracy of the Stein estimator a result of incorporating a good Bayesian prior into the "observed average" result of the individual players -- that prior being the batting average of a "typical" player (ie, the average of the averages)?