4 ms·
That is precisely what the court ordered. To wit, "If the First Amendment has any force, it prohibits Congress from fining or jailing citizens, or associations
by GauntletWizard 11y ago
That is precisely what the court ordered. To wit, "If the First Amendment has any force, it prohibits Congress
from fining or jailing citizens, or associations of
citizens, for simply engaging in political speech. If the
antidistortion rationale were to be accepted, however, it
would permit Government to ban political speech simply
because the speaker is an association that has taken on
the corporate form. "
It's fairly clear throughout the ruling[1] that the Justices are not relying on corporate personhood, but the freedom of association argument. It is a media myth that the case was about 'corporations are people, too!'
[1] http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/09pdf/08-205.pdf http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/09pdf/08-205.pdf