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Of course they were brought to poverty. They were obsoleted by technology. The link you provide proves my point readily: > Since population was increasing in
by AndrewUnmuted 11y ago
Of course they were brought to poverty. They were obsoleted by technology.
The link you provide proves my point readily:
> Since population was increasing in Great Britain at the same time that landowners were enclosing common village lands, people from the countryside flocked to the towns and the new factories to get work.
At the time, Europe's population was increasing 300% per century, whereas in prior eras the population increase was around 3% per century.
Why was the population increasing so rapidly? Because capitalism was enabling the disenfranchised poor to survive for the first time. Obtaining household goods was becoming less of a struggle, people were living beyond the age of 40, and famine was no longer a daily reality for most.
The societal changes that occurred due to the industrial revolution were significant and immediate; of course there were issues dealing with this change. It was the most potent moment of change the modern world has ever seen - a culmination of the ideology of the Renaissance paired with the technology of the times.
- SolaceQuantum 11y agoYour claim is that capitalism solved poverty and didn't create any instances. I'm pointing to an instance where people became impoverished because they were rendered redundant from capitalism. That's all I'm saying. You seem to be arguing against something that isn't my point.
- thatswrong0 11y agoI think it's pretty obvious they meant poverty as a whole, in which case you're just being pedantic.
- loup-vaillant 11y ago> Because capitalism was enabling the disenfranchised poor to survive for the first time. Capitalism? Or just plain technological progress?