4 ms·
Therefore the marginal utility of time has a lower limit... So what? If we were to impose some cap on income (say $1B/year) would it suddenly be "exploitative
by yummyfajitas 11y ago
Therefore the marginal utility of time has a lower limit...
So what?
If we were to impose some cap on income (say $1B/year) would it suddenly be "exploitative" to charge any income tax? If not, then this argument is a red herring.
Would you say that it is overall a value positive transaction?
Yes.
Of course, your analogy is silly - a better comparison would be a resort near the desert which charges $2.50 for a bottle of water. All anyone is proposing is that welfare people get a job that pays the same rates that the workers supporting them get paid.
- clavalle 11y ago>If we were to impose some cap on income (say $1B/year) would it suddenly be "exploitative" to charge any income tax? Maybe not at $1B/year (that marginal dollar is damn near infinitesimal at that point). But maybe if the cap was, say, $50K (or in that rough ballpark) a year characterizing income tax as exploitative could be a concept worthy of exploring. Especially if we are talking about taking 40% their usable income or more as the article is proposing for the poor assuming they are expecting them to work 8 hours a day.