Suppose that the Energy distribution for a certain amount of light (as seen by earth) was given by /- 1 if f < f0 E(f) = > \- 1/f^2 if

Suppose that the Energy distribution for a certain amount of light (as seen by earth) was given by /- 1 if f < f0 E(f) = > \- 1/f^2 if f > f0 Then we would have light "at all frequencies" which could be said to be "an infiinite amount of light" but the total amount of energy would still be finite. Most of these explanations don't seem to first figure out whether if you had a uniform distribution of stars (at discrete points) in an infinite (Euclidean) space, if the amount of radiated energy seen at an arbitrary point would diverge if you summed over all available frequencies. If it doesn't, it seems like lack of sensitivity is the main issue here, and the cosmological arguments are simply additional reasons for why it doesn't happen.