You say: "Laws that practically apply to a small group or single person are not unconstitutional as a class" - but isn't that exactly what would be needed to de

You say: "Laws that practically apply to a small group or single person are not unconstitutional as a class" - but isn't that exactly what would be needed to define the actions of this scumbag as illegal and punishable by fines and imprisonment? This doesn't seem irrelevant to me. I've read some of the laws protecting billionaires. And they can be very specific, applying only to people who live in a particular town and who have entered specific agreements. So, if we can use these laws to absolve the rich, we should be able to use them to define criminals against our society.