3 ms·
If the "correct" valuation was halfway between the 2 valuations, then they could have overpaid at valuation, and still have declined in value. Of course, value
by elthran 11y ago
If the "correct" valuation was halfway between the 2 valuations, then they could have overpaid at valuation, and still have declined in value.
Of course, value is relative and only based on what anyone will pay for it.
- ikeboy 11y agoThe title implies the entire decrease was after the purchase. That's inconsistent with the actual article.