5 ms·
What's more likely is that one psalm was copied from the other during the Torah's authorship. Just looking at the translation you can see the use of YHWH (trans
by jganetsk 17y ago
What's more likely is that one psalm was copied from the other during the Torah's authorship. Just looking at the translation you can see the use of YHWH (translated as the LORD) in one psalm, and the lack of use of YHWH in the other. This is probably because one psalm was written by J, and the other was copied by E.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Documentary_Hypothesis http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Documentary_Hypothesis
Also, I'm not quite sure what kind of transcription errors are permitted in Torah scrolls. They do throw out the entire scroll if there's a significant error. I can't imagine someone duplicating an entire psalm. At most, a letter might be missing from the text.