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Those two statements are mutually incompatible. Python3 is a different language with different semantics. It is possible to work in a subset of python2 and pyt
by ngoldbaum 11y ago
Those two statements are mutually incompatible. Python3 is a different language with different semantics.
It is possible to work in a subset of python2 and python3 that is syntactically valid under both interpreters but this is not what you are suggesting.
- Grue3 11y agoNo, you are confusing "features" and "syntax". Both Python 2 and Python 3 are Turing complete. They have the same expressiveness. It's possible to backwards-compatibly extend Python 2 to achieve feature-parity with Python 3 while preserving Python 2 syntax. Python 4 proposed by me is possible, while Python 6 (which must be backwards-compatible with both 2 and 3) is probably not possible.
- orf 11y ago> It's possible to backwards-compatibly extend Python 2 to achieve feature-parity with Python 3 while preserving Python 2 syntax. The syntax between 2 and 3 is essentially the same. A few minor tweaks here and there, but nothing major. Your point is a bit pointless because changes to the language that are not on the syntactical level (i.e unicode/bytes) cause the meaning of the code to change, despite the syntax being the same.