Likely they would, if the buyer sued the seller. The buyer has an invoice stating that the goods were sold to him, and the seller had received payment into thei

Likely they would, if the buyer sued the seller. The buyer has an invoice stating that the goods were sold to him, and the seller had received payment into their bank account. It's pretty clear that title of the tickets had transferred to the buyer, and that he would be entitled to the proceeds of any illicit sale of those tickets to another buyer. That said, IANAL.