3 ms·
No - the precondition is that agents share common knowledge of each others' priors (not that they have the same priors).
by XFrequentist 11y ago
No - the precondition is that agents share common knowledge of each others' priors (not that they have the same priors).
- kybernetikos 11y agoHere's the paper I read: http://www.ma.huji.ac.il/~raumann/pdf/Agreeing%20to%20Disagree.pdf http://www.ma.huji.ac.il/~raumann/pdf/Agreeing%20to%20Disagr... Here's how it starts: "Theorem: if two people have the same priors..."
- XFrequentist 11y agoWhoops, seems you are correct. I'd misunderstood this, my apologies.