3 ms·
Only the last paragraph is original, but it is probably also wrong. So PG is saying that the major cause of inequality is technological advancement. But for exa
by balsam 11y ago
Only the last paragraph is original, but it is probably also wrong. So PG is saying that the major cause of inequality is technological advancement. But for example see that economic inequality decreased after WWII, but is it really that farfetched to imagine that technological power did not decrease during the war years? (E.g. Manhattan Project.) It is also not hard to imagine that wars would distribute technology more evenly.
- tempestn 11y agoThere are multiple factors that affect inequality, so a short term decrease in inequality can certainly still occur while technology continues to advance. In his other recent essay[1], pg goes into more detail on why inequality decreased in the postwar years, despite advances in technology. [1]: http://www.paulgraham.com/re.html http://www.paulgraham.com/re.html