3 ms·
So perhaps you can explain why, whatever this wealth was providing Denmark's 'economic status' the Nazi's didn't plunder it when they occupied it during WWII?
by marshray 11y ago
So perhaps you can explain why, whatever this wealth was providing Denmark's 'economic status' the Nazi's didn't plunder it when they occupied it during WWII?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denmark_in_World_War_II https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denmark_in_World_War_II
AFAICT, Denmark (and Germany, Japan, China, Singapore, South Korea, and everybody else) have whatever 'economic status' they have due to a lot more to what happened during the post WWII years than to colonial times.
- ptaipale 11y agoYes, and attributing Sweden's wealth to slave trade is disingenuous. Attributing it to WWII years and selling ball bearings to Nazis is more relevant - but then, who in their position wouldn't have done that? I.e. stay out of the nasty war and trade, if it helps to keep peace on borders.