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It's not. At least not directly. PG touches on this at the bottom of his essay. High income equality indirectly erodes social mobility because the ruling class
by kelukelugames 11y ago
It's not. At least not directly. PG touches on this at the bottom of his essay.
High income equality indirectly erodes social mobility because the ruling class rigs the rules to benefit their children. For example, in the 60s Ivies added ridiculous criteria such as "manliness" and height to discriminate against Jewish applicants. Today, schools reduce the weight of grades and tests to discriminate against Asian applicants.