2 ms·
You are misapplying the fallacy - it does not imply that there is no distinction between Scots and non-Scots. The fact that Blair and Cameron do not identify a
by caf 11y ago
You are misapplying the fallacy - it does not imply that there is no distinction between Scots and non-Scots.
The fact that Blair and Cameron do not identify as Scottish is sufficient reason to say that they aren't Scottish, and does not invoke the fallacy.
- mc32 11y agoI don't think that's sufficient reason. It's possible in the future one or more self identifies as Scottish. Alternatively, let's say Cecil Rhodes had said, I'm not English, I'm South African, would that have made him South African and not English?