3 ms·
No, it follows directly from the fact that the positive integers are well-ordered, i.e., any set of positive integers has a least element. And in case one is t
by jfarmer 11y ago
No, it follows directly from the fact that the positive integers are well-ordered, i.e., any set of positive integers has a least element.
And in case one is tempted to think that well-ordering and divisibility are somehow equivalent, consider Presburger arithmetic[1]. It's not even possible to define a general notion of divisibility or primality in that context, but I'm almost positive the well-ordering principle holds (it's equivalent to the axiom schema of induction).
[1]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presburger_arithmetic https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presburger_arithmetic
- brlewis 11y agoalpha = p/q where p and q are positive integers. It's finding the set of all possible q that uses divisibility, not finding the least member of that set.