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Trading services does not involve property, so no. It does. Everyone has self-ownership, and as such services can only be sold in the units contracted. A contr
by vezzy-fnord 11y ago
Trading services does not involve property, so no.
It does. Everyone has self-ownership, and as such services can only be sold in the units contracted. A contract for a single indefinite unit service (slavery) would be logically consistent, but a property rights violation and therefore invalid.