3 ms·

I made no such claim in my original comment. To clarify, I mean that these dishes were invented in America, for an American audience. Whether anyone else can en

I made no such claim in my original comment. To clarify, I mean that these dishes were invented in America, for an American audience. Whether anyone else can enjoy them is besides the point.

umanwizard 11y ago
Ethnic Mexicans invented it for themselves. Whether they did so in the borders of the U.S. or Mexico is irrelevant, especially since the different ethnicities in the U.S. were much less integrated then than they are now. I.e. there wasn't some magical discontinuity at the border that means it made more sense to count Mexican-Americans of that era as more closely similar to Anglo-Saxon Americans than to Mexican nationals. It happens that the Burrito was invented near the northern end of where ethnic Mexicans lived but that doesn't seem to say much about the type of palate it was created for.
- personjerry 11y ago
  In this case, Wikipedia indicates that all in all likelihood the food was not invented in Mexico. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burrito https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burrito Then we might interpret the fact that the burrito is much more popular in northern Mexico as evidence that the taste for burritos is correlated with American cultural influence. But overall my point is, different cultures may have different tastes. Hence if you would concede that northern Mexico and the rest of Mexico seem to differ in opinion about the burrito, then we have established cultural taste distinctions can exist, which is all I want to say.
  - umanwizard 11y ago
    > cultural taste distinctions can exist Okay, everyone agrees with this -- I was responding to the notion that "real" foreign food, not tailored to Anglo tastes, doesn't exist in the US. Maybe this is true in some regions, but certainly not in big coastal cities with large non-culturally-Anglo populations.

3 ms·

I made no such claim in my original comment. To clarify, I mean that these dishes were invented in America, for an American audience. Whether anyone else can en

by personjerry 11y ago

I made no such claim in my original comment. To clarify, I mean that these dishes were invented in America, for an American audience. Whether anyone else can enjoy them is besides the point.

umanwizard 11y ago
Ethnic Mexicans invented it for themselves. Whether they did so in the borders of the U.S. or Mexico is irrelevant, especially since the different ethnicities in the U.S. were much less integrated then than they are now. I.e. there wasn't some magical discontinuity at the border that means it made more sense to count Mexican-Americans of that era as more closely similar to Anglo-Saxon Americans than to Mexican nationals. It happens that the Burrito was invented near the northern end of where ethnic Mexicans lived but that doesn't seem to say much about the type of palate it was created for.
- personjerry 11y ago
  In this case, Wikipedia indicates that all in all likelihood the food was not invented in Mexico. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burrito https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burrito Then we might interpret the fact that the burrito is much more popular in northern Mexico as evidence that the taste for burritos is correlated with American cultural influence. But overall my point is, different cultures may have different tastes. Hence if you would concede that northern Mexico and the rest of Mexico seem to differ in opinion about the burrito, then we have established cultural taste distinctions can exist, which is all I want to say.
  - umanwizard 11y ago
    > cultural taste distinctions can exist Okay, everyone agrees with this -- I was responding to the notion that "real" foreign food, not tailored to Anglo tastes, doesn't exist in the US. Maybe this is true in some regions, but certainly not in big coastal cities with large non-culturally-Anglo populations.