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On page 4, it says "Now by Robin criterion d(n)<0 for n large enough, yielding lim sup (n->infinity) (d(n)) <= 0". If I understand the criterion from page 1 rig
by dooglius 11y ago
On page 4, it says "Now by Robin criterion d(n)<0 for n large enough, yielding lim sup (n->infinity) (d(n)) <= 0". If I understand the criterion from page 1 right, assuming RH is false only implies that d(n) <= 0 for some n > 7! -- not for all n sufficiently large, so the limit superior is not constrained as claimed. In fact, on page 2, the paper claims "Thus, if m is bounded and n->infinity, we see that d(n)->infinity", which, if the falsity of RH did imply lim sup (n->infinity) (d(n)) <= 0, would make for an even shorter and simpler proof.
Disclaimer: I've only got an undergrad in math and don't know much about the specifics of the cited papers, so I might be missing something.
- deleted 11y ago[deleted]
- contravariant 11y agoApparently the negation of RH is enough to state that there needs to be infinitely many numbers such that d(n)<=0. That would imply that you can find arbitrarily large n such that d(n)<=0, but I don't think that's enough to claim that "lim sup (n->infinity) (d(n)) <= 0". I think it's enough to claim "lim inf (n->infinity) (d(n)) <= 0" though, but for some reason they proved that in a different way, that I don't quite understand yet.