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Why couldn't they simply do a split, in which case the original employee's share would be diluted, but they'd be given more.
by s73v3r 11y ago
Why couldn't they simply do a split, in which case the original employee's share would be diluted, but they'd be given more.
- JonFish85 11y agoIs that how a split works? I've always thought that a split was just that: 1 share now is 2 shares. The total value of holdings becomes the same. When Apple split, that's what happened with my shares there, anyways.
- dragonwriter 11y ago> Why couldn't they simply do a split, in which case the original employee's share would be diluted, but they'd be given more. A split has no effect on the total value or proportion of the company owned versus not having the split, it just changes the "size" of the units you are counting stock in. So the original employee would be in the exact same position with a split as they would be without a split.