4 ms·
I am not sure what you mean by "the form of the theorem looks much more arbitrary". The derivation of Bayes law comes from the axioms of conditional probability
by ivan_k 11y ago
I am not sure what you mean by "the form of the theorem looks much more arbitrary".
The derivation of Bayes law comes from the axioms of conditional probability.
Given two events A, B; we have:
P(A^B) = P(A|B) * P(B)
Probability of A and B = Probability of A given B happened times probability of B
Symmetrically, we can say:
P(A^B) = P(B|A) * P(A)
Now we have:
P(A|B) * P(B) = P(B|A) * P(A)
Rearranging, we get:
P(A|B) = P(B|A) * P(A) / P(B)
So I do not see this as being particularly arbitrary. While other rational models are possible, I find this one rather practical and satisfying.
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- TuringTest 11y agoWhat I mean is that those axioms of conditional probability seem intuitively true because of their frequentist interpretation, i.e. counting the possible cases that satisfy each probability. If you devoid them from the combinatorics that justify their meaning, there's no special reason to accept these particular axioms nor the law derived from them.