4 ms·
I think you have to hit every permutation, at least for AES, because AES is reversible. In particular, if there were some 0 <= y < 2^128 such that AES_k(x) !=
by nialo 11y ago
I think you have to hit every permutation, at least for AES, because AES is reversible.
In particular, if there were some 0 <= y < 2^128 such that AES_k(x) != y for all 0 <= x < 2^128, then there must also be some z such that two different values x1 and x2 encrypt to the same value, which can't happen if AES is reversible.
- mmalone 11y agoSure but I don't immediately see how that equates to a proof of its ability to produce every combination of, say, 52 consecutive numbers... Just that it will produce every possible individual number. In PRNG-parlance it shows 1-dimensional equidistribution but not 52-dimensional (or generally (k, w)-dimensional) equidistribution. Or is there another pigeonhole step I'm missing?