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There is room for confusion. From Wikipedia "Unanimity": "Unanimity may be assumed explicitly after a unanimous vote or implicitly by a lack of objections." "
by ics 11y ago
There is room for confusion. From Wikipedia "Unanimity":
"Unanimity may be assumed explicitly after a unanimous vote or implicitly by a lack of objections."
"Practice varies as to whether a vote can be considered unanimous if some voter abstains."
Unanimous consent as stated by Theranos means (a) the majority / necessary number of shareholders gave a response and (b) none of those responses were of dissent. The quoted shareholder may still be surprised that the shareholders who did vote were a large enough group and in unanimous agreement; it's not necessarily wrong of the author to include this. Edit: The wording of the quote however does come across as though they misunderstood the consent part however.
- AndrewKemendo 11y agoForbes of all outlets, especially Peter Cohan, should know the difference and that this isn't abnormal at all.
- molyss 11y agoand so should an investor in a privately owned company. the "shareholder" could be an employee with equity and no voting rights, in which case the article is just here to surf on the buzz surrounding theranos and adding to the bad press. Or it could be a meaningful investor, in which case he/she should be blaming noone but him/herself for not reading the fine prints/asking a lawyer
- deleted 11y ago[deleted]