Differential treatment after selection would indeed invalidate Graham's test. Stereotype threat, however, is NOT such a different treatment. Again - if stereot

Differential treatment after selection would indeed invalidate Graham's test. Stereotype threat, however, is NOT such a different treatment. Again - if stereotype threat reduces measured performance by X and actual performance by Y, then the bias it introduces is Y-X. If Y=X then there is no bias. Do you believe Y != X? If so, why?