...only shifted consumption from the rich to the poor... I didn't claim that believe the rich and poor have equal propensity to spend. The former implies the

...only shifted consumption from the rich to the poor... I didn't claim that believe the rich and poor have equal propensity to spend. The former implies the latter. I didn't claim that a BI will increase investment. ... if poor and middle class folks have a higher and more reliable income, they are more likely to save. Now you seem to be agreeing with me that the article is wrong, and that a BI would increase real consumption and reduce real investment? Could you state clearly what you think will happen to real (not nominal) consumption/investment under a BI and what the mechanism for that is?