> I'm suggesting the top 50% in America are better of than the top 50% in Sweden. I'm asking you what that sentence means. Comparing groups is a tricky busines

> I'm suggesting the top 50% in America are better of than the top 50% in Sweden. I'm asking you what that sentence means. Comparing groups is a tricky business. The richest half of Americans are better off in total? In the mean? In the median? Does it mean that the Pth percentile American is richer than the Pth percentile Swede, for all P>50? I'm ignoring, for the moment, the ambiguity in which Americans are the "top" ones and what if means to be "better off". (wealth? income? education? lifespan? self-reported happiness?) Maybe it would help if you point to some actual numbers by some social scientists that back up your claim.