A good question but no, they don't have 80% of the income. Let me flip the question though - should the bottom 40% of earners pay taxes proportionate to their s

A good question but no, they don't have 80% of the income. Let me flip the question though - should the bottom 40% of earners pay taxes proportionate to their share of income? Because they don't pay anything at all (federally). The point is fundamentally flawed. > The top 1% of tax payers pay 38% of all income taxes yet only have a 20% share of total AGI. [0] It would be easy to get into the weeds on this, so I'll drop this link and let you decide for yourself. There will always be questions like, is AGI a good measure of income %? (I say yes, because AGI-reducing writeoffs phase out very early). There's a lot of "well it depends on how you define.." even within my own argument as you can see (do they pay 50% or 38%?) but my point should be clear enough. I hope :) [0] http://www.financialsamurai.com/how-much-money-do-the-top-income-earners-make-percent/ http://www.financialsamurai.com/how-much-money-do-the-top-in...