For the lazy, murders per death by cop, based on those numbers: Germany: 83 California: 17 Murders per capita: Germany: 1/124,000 California: 1/23,000 So

For the lazy, murders per death by cop, based on those numbers: Germany: 83 California: 17 Murders per capita: Germany: 1/124,000 California: 1/23,000 So California's murder rate is 5.4x Germany's, and its death by cop per murder rate is 4.9x Germany's. Is it just me, or wouldn't you expect the death by cop rate to be more than a linear function of the murder rate... perhaps even a polynomial function? A difference in murder rate of x does not necessarily mean a difference in levels of violence/danger of x.