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> This is a common view amongst people who have never studied philosophy I really should take offence here with this statement ;). >You may say whatever a dec
by NhanH 11y ago
> This is a common view amongst people who have never studied philosophy
I really should take offence here with this statement ;).
>You may say whatever a decision a scientist makes on concepts such as these is obviously the best - but then history would show you totally incorrect.
That wasn't what I meant at all. I meant it is normal for scientific evidence to be part of answer for philosophical question, and there is no conflict to be found with that. In fact, up until the middle of last century when science becomes too specialized, it's fairly normal for scientist and mathematicians to also be engaging in lot of philosophy (Bertrand Russell and Hilbert comes to mind). Several branches of logics are also intertwined with philosophy development. The seemingly separation of science and philosophy nowadays is more a matter of specialization than anything (there is a quote on this).
"Vital force" was an incorrect scientific hypothesis, but the philosophical question of "is there anything fundamentally difference between life and non-life objects" is answered by scientific advancement. And I said that specific philosophical questions can be made obsolete, just as scientific questions can be made obsolete and irrelevant. That is no indictment on either philosophy or the scientific method.
From my understanding, science is more the concern of facts, and philosophy is the framework for study and interpretation of those facts ("truths", if you will).
- mjburgess 11y ago> "is there anything fundamentally difference between life and non-life objects" is answered by scientific advancement No it isnt. Science has only made one candidate for the meaning of "fundamental" trivial (in particular, that the physical substance of living things is the same substance of non-living things)- there are many other senses in which living things and non-livings things are fundamentally different. For example, all moral agents are necessarily alive. All non-living things are necessarily not moral agents.
- JoeAltmaier 11y agoHm. Not agreeing here. Either one is derived from / defined by the other somehow, so they are two words for one thing. Or there is supposed to be some property of life not mentioned that is necessary for moral agency. In which case a perfect simulation of a living thing, not alive in itself but identical in all knowable ways by definition, would have to have moral agency?